Political Science

Parliament – Political Science MCQ Question and Answer

Parliament – Political Science MCQ Question and Answer

Parliament – Political Science MCQ Question and Answer : Parliament – Political Science MCQ Question and Answer is given below.  This Parliament – Political Science MCQ / Parliament – Political Science Quiz / Parliament – Political Science Question and Answer / Parliament – Political Science Multiple Choice Question, Short Question, Question and Answer, Suggestion, Notes are very important for school, college and various competitive or job exams and interviews.

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Parliament – Political Science MCQ

  1. After Independance, in which year were the Indian States reorganized on the linguistic basis?

(A) 1947

(B) 1951

(C) 1956

(D) 2000

Answer : 1956

Solution: In October, 1953, Government of India created the first linguistic state known as Andra Pradesh. However large scale reorganisation of the states on linguistic basic started in the year 1956.

  1. According to Article 1 of Indian Constitution, India is –

(A) Group of States

(B) Federation of States

(C) Confederation of State

(D) The Union of States

Answer : The Union of States

Solution: According to Article 1 of the Indian Constitution, India, that is Bharat shall be a Union of States. The territory of India shall comprise (1) States (2) Union Territories (3) such other territories as may be acquired. The name and territories of the States has been specified in the First Schedule.

  1. Bihar as an Indian State was formed in –

(A) 1911

(B) 1912

(C) 1936

(D) 2000

Answer : 1936

Solution: On April 1st 1936, Bihar Province (Which included present day Bihar & Jharkhand) was created.

  1. ‘ULFA extremist are related to which state:

(A) Assam

(B) Uttar Pradesh

(C) Punjab

(D) Jammu and Kashmir

Answer : Assam

Solution: The United Liberation Front of Assam (ULFA) is a separatist outfit operating in Assam. It was founded on 7 April, 1979. It seeks to establish a Sovereign Assam via an armed struggle. This organization was banned by the Government in 1990.

  1. Who/which of the following is competent to prescribe conditions for acquisition of citizenship ?

(A) Election Commission

(B) President

(C) Parliament and State Legislatures jointly

(D) Parliament

Answer : Parliament

Solution: Article 11 of the Constitution of India declares that the Parliament shall have the power to regulate the right of citizenship by making law. By exercising this power, Parliament enacted Citizenship Act, 1955 which gives provisions for acquisition and termination of citizenship. The Central Government by exercising its power under Section 18 of the Citizenship Act made Citizenship Rules, 2009 and Citizenship (Amendment) Rule, 2015.

  1. Indian Constitution has –

(A) 9 Schedules

(B) 12 Schedules

(C) 10 Schedules

(D) 11 Schedules

Answer : 12 Schedules

Solution: There are 12 Schedules in our Constitution. Originally there were only 8 Schedules but 4 Schedules were added by Amendment Acts. 9″ Schedule was added by Istst amendment in 1951, related to Land Tenure, Land Tax and Railways. 10″ Schedule was added by 52 amendment in 1985 which contains provisions of disqualification on the grounds of defection. 11th Schedule was added by  amendment in * 1992 and it contains provisions of Panchayati Raj. 12th Schedule was added by 74″ amendment in 1992 which contains provisions of Municipal Corporation.

  1. The main object of Article 13 of the Indian Constitution is to secure the paramountcy of the Constitution regarding :

(A) Directive Principles of State Policy

(B) Fundamental Rights

(C) Fundamental Duties

(D) All of the above

Answer : Fundamental Rights

Solution: Article 13 of Indian Constitution makes13 of Indian Constitution makes provision that preconstitutional laws and post-constitutiona inconsistent with the provisions of Fundamental Rights enumerated in part III, shall be void to the extent of sucu inconsistency. Article 245 is related to the extent of laws made by the Parliament and by the Legislatures of the States. Article 326 is related to the election of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, and Article 32 is for the Constitutional remedies. Thus in the given option, (b) seems to be the correct answer.

  1. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution belongs to a different category:

(A) Article  14

(B) Article 15

(C) Article   16

(D) Article   19

Answer : Article   19

Solution: In the given Articles, Article 19 belong as it comes in the category of Rignu deals with the Protection of certain

e category of Right to Freedom. Article 19 the Protection of certain Rights such as

(a) freedom of speech and expression 

(b) To assemble peacefuly and without arms 

(c) To form association or unions

 (d) To move freely throughout the territory of India

 (e) To reside and settle in any part of the territory of India 

(f) To practice any profession, or to carry any occupation,

trade, and business.

  1. How many seats are reserved for UTs in Lok Sabha?

(A) 20

(B) 25

(C) 30

(D) There is no reserved seats

Answer : 20

Solution: According to Article 81 (As amended by 31″ Amendment, 1973 and Goa, Daman and Diu Reorganisation Act, 1987) the maximum strength of the House of People envisaged is 552 out of which 530 members to represent States and 20 members to represent the Union Territories. According to Article 331, if the community of Anglo-Indian has not an adequate representation in the House then the President may nominate 2 members. Presently, the seats for UT is 13 (Delhi-7, Andaman and Nicobar-1, Dadara and Nagar Haveli-1, Daman and Diu1, Chandigarh-1, Lakhsdweep-1, Puducherry-1) while in Rajya Sabha it is 4 (Delhi-3, Puducherry-1)

  1. Which is the national bird of India?

(A) Peacock

(B) Parrot

(C) Pigeon

(D) Cuckoo

Answer : Peacock

Solution: Peacock is the national bird of India.

Political Science MCQ Question and Answer

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Parliament – Political Science MCQ Question and Answer

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